HP0-791 exam for you

HP0-791 exam for you：
1. A converged network ________________.A. can transmit voice, video, and data over a single infrastructureB. deploys circuit-switching instead of packet-switchingC. can serve more users than a conventional IP networkD. features an edge-oriented architectureAnswer: A
2. Ethernet and IP are the fundamental technologies for converged networks because they ___________. Select TWO.A. offer mature standardsB. tolerate high packet lossC. are widely deployedD. offer high levels of securityE. aren't disrupted by power outagesAnswer: AC
3. How does the ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture support convergence?A. by enhancing edge compression of video streamsB. by ensuring that traffic is prioritized at the edge of the networkC. by translating analog signals to digital signals at the edge of the networkD. by supporting a variety of Layer 3 protocols at the edge and in the core of the networkAnswer: B
4. In a converged network, what does video traffic require in comparison to voice traffic?A. less delayB. higher priorityC. more bandwidthD. more expensive cablingAnswer: C
5. What is the measurable degree to which an IT staff can successfully guarantee the predictable behavior of network services?A. Type of Service (ToS)B. Class of Service (CoS)C. Quality of Service (QoS)D. Guarantee of Service (GoS)Answer: C
6. In comparison to streaming video traffic, voice traffic is typically more ______________.A. difficult to routeB. insensitive to jitterC. sensitive to delayD. bandwidth-intensiveAnswer: C
7. What is IP Type of Service (ToS) an example of?A. hard QoSB. soft QoSC. continual QoSD. virtual QoSAnswer: B
8. A user of a new VoIP infrastructure reports that she unintentionally speaks at the same time as the person on the other end of the line. This condition could be caused by excessive _____________.A. jitterB. delayC. echoD. packet collisionsAnswer: B
9. Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?A. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.C. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.D. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.Answer: B
10. You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 and Layer 3 priority markers for all voice traffic. The VoIP traffic will not cross any WAN links. To support these phones, the customer's new ProCurve 5300xl series switches will require ___________________.A. rate limiting on all ports that support VoIP phonesB. GMB settings for voice trafficC. an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice trafficD. no QoS configuration changesAnswer: D
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The braindumps of HP0-791 exam

The braindumps of HP0-791 exam:
1. A converged network ________________.A. can transmit voice, video, and data over a single infrastructureB. deploys circuit-switching instead of packet-switchingC. can serve more users than a conventional IP networkD. features an edge-oriented architectureAnswer: A
2. Ethernet and IP are the fundamental technologies for converged networks because they ___________. Select TWO.A. offer mature standardsB. tolerate high packet lossC. are widely deployedD. offer high levels of securityE. aren't disrupted by power outagesAnswer: AC
3. How does the ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture support convergence?A. by enhancing edge compression of video streamsB. by ensuring that traffic is prioritized at the edge of the networkC. by translating analog signals to digital signals at the edge of the networkD. by supporting a variety of Layer 3 protocols at the edge and in the core of the networkAnswer: B
4. In a converged network, what does video traffic require in comparison to voice traffic?A. less delayB. higher priorityC. more bandwidthD. more expensive cablingAnswer: C
5. What is the measurable degree to which an IT staff can successfully guarantee the predictable behavior of network services?A. Type of Service (ToS)B. Class of Service (CoS)C. Quality of Service (QoS)D. Guarantee of Service (GoS)Answer: C
6. In comparison to streaming video traffic, voice traffic is typically more ______________.A. difficult to routeB. insensitive to jitterC. sensitive to delayD. bandwidth-intensiveAnswer: C
7. What is IP Type of Service (ToS) an example of?A. hard QoSB. soft QoSC. continual QoSD. virtual QoSAnswer: B
8. A user of a new VoIP infrastructure reports that she unintentionally speaks at the same time as the person on the other end of the line. This condition could be caused by excessive _____________.A. jitterB. delayC. echoD. packet collisionsAnswer: B
9. Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?A. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.C. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.D. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.Answer: B
10. You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 and Layer 3 priority markers for all voice traffic. The VoIP traffic will not cross any WAN links. To support these phones, the customer's new ProCurve 5300xl series switches will require ___________________.A. rate limiting on all ports that support VoIP phonesB. GMB settings for voice trafficC. an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice trafficD. no QoS configuration changesAnswer: D
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IBM 000-425 exam informations for you

IBM 000-425 exam informations for you
1. A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution. What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment
Answer: C
2. Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from."
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any additional time."
D. "We are on older technology. I know that getting up to date will help us improve on our customer satisfaction."
Answer: B
3. A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9. Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C
4. A System z competitor has announced their potential entry into the mainframe market. It further claims that their system can run z/OS. What should the sales rep make sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system will also run z/VM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines, subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonstrated to run on Designated Machines, subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C
5. A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows. Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A
6. What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C
7. A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements. Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C
8. A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment. Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A
9. A university physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet performance needs at the best price and consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B
10. A new CIO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure. Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B
11. A moderate sized customer wants to exploit 4Gb FICON on IBM Disk Storage with 40 TB and they are space constrained. Which of the following should the sales specialist recommend?
A. DS4000
B. DS6000
C. DS8000
D. ESS 800
Answer: C
12. Which of the following statements best describes who should be involved in a Systems Assurance Review?
A. All parties directly involved with the install and the Systems Assurance Coordinator.
B. All parties directly involved with the install and the ITSO.
C. All parties directly involved with the install and Poughkeepsie Product Assistance Center (PPAC).
D. All parties directly involved in the install except business partners
Answer: A
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Cisco 642-975 Exam Answers

1. NetQoS adopts the method of performance priority to manage the network infrastructures, which main functions does it provide?(Select all appropriate)A. The end-to-end performance monitoringB. Analyzing the communication trafficC. Device performance managementD. IT cost calculationE. Trace network analysisAnswer: ABCDE

2. Which three statements best describe Cisco Application Networking Manager(ANM)? (Choose three)A. Cisco ANM can manage virtual products and management-level domains through a number of Cisco ACE modulesB. Be able to discover, deploy, monitor and report a number of virtual products on Cisco ACE modulesC. Accomplish completely transparent deploymentD. The speed is low in the implementation process.Answer: ABC

3. Which installation requirement is for Cisco ANM?A. Windows 2003 Server 2 GB RAM 120 GB HDB. Windows NT 4.1 2 GB RAM 50 GB HDC. Ubuntu Linux Server 7.0 4GB RAM 80 GB HDD. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.5 2 GB RAM 60 GB HDAnswer: D

4. Taking a Cisco ACE Module implementation into consideration, a site survey should first be taken to confirm which two requirements? (Choose two.)A. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine 32 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterB. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Supervisor Engine 4 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(31)SGA or laterC. Cisco 7600 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco 7600 Series Supervisor Engine 720 Cisco 7600 Series Route Switch Processor 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterD. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterAnswer: CD

5. A single Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance deals with all data center and the data center traffic. At which traffic level point will you consider purchasing a second Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?A. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 80,000B. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 20,000C. when the L7 Perf CPS reaches 40,000D. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 100,000Answer: D

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The PK1-003 exam Q&A

The PK1-003 exam questions and answers:
1. In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

2. A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

3. Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

4. A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

5. Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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1. Scenario: An administrator is installing XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 in an environment. The administrator has two disks available for storage. According to best practices, how should the administrator configure the local disk storage repositories (SRs) during the initial XenServer installation?

A. Install XenServer on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

B. Install XenServer on one disk and the virtual machine SR on the other disk

C. Install XenServer and an in-place upgrade partition on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

D. Install XenServer and the virtual machine SR on one disk and an in-place upgrade partition on the other disk

Answer: B

2. According to best practices, which step should an administrator perform before booting the installer CD to upgrade to XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 from XenServer 4.x?

A. Suspend any running virtual machines

B. Delete the current server configuration

C. Re-enter the physical network configuration

D. Backup the existing virtual machines (VMs) with a VM export

Answer: D

3. Which two physical hardware configurations are supported by XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0? (Choose two.)

A. 512GB RAM

B. 256GB RAM

C. 32 CPU cores

D. 128 CPU cores

E. 32-bit architecture

F. 64-bit architecture

Answer: CF

4. To allow for rapid deployment of XenServer hosts in a large environment, an administrator decides to install XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 using a network boot process. To which type of server must the administrator configure DHCP to communicate?

A. FTP

B. HTTP

C. TFTP

D. HTTPS

Answer: C

5. Where can an administrator determine when a XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 license will expire?

A. XenCenter

B. XenServer Tools

C. mycitrix.com web site

D. Citrix License Management Console

Answer: A

6. Scenario: An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. Which upgrade path should the administrator take?

A. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode

B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0

C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0

D. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager

Answer: C

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COG-310 exam study notes

 COG-310 IT test questions and answers:

1. When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B

2. An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer: A

3. Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C

4. Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D

5. When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

6. Why would a developer create a consolidated element?
A. To display comments in a cube.
B. To apply alternate names to an element.
C. To store numeric data.
D. To calculate an aggregation.
Answer: D

7. Which of the following element properties is used to perform subtraction within the dimension hierarchy?
A. Weight
B. Format
C. Attribute
D. Aggregation
Answer: A

8. Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?
A. String
B. Attribute
C. Consolidation
D. Simple
Answer: D

9. Why would an application developer assign a negative weight to an element in a dimension?
A. To store credit balances without a negative sign.
B. To provide an alternate drill down path to the dimension.
C. To display data in different formats.
D. To store data in multiple hierarchies.
Answer: A

10. Which of the following attributes can be used to display element names in multiple languages?
A. Text
B. String
C. Alias
D. Format
Answer: C

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 70-503 VB exam infromation at TestInside:



1. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You need to programmatically add the following endpoint definition to the service. Which code segment should you use?

A. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService";

BasicHttpBinding binding1=new BasicHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

  host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

B. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService/service";

BasicHttpBinding binding1=new BasicHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

  host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

C. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService";

WsHttpBinding binding1=new WsHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

  host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

D. String baseAddress="net.tcp: //localhost:8000/ExamService/service";

NetTcpBinding binding1=new NetTcpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

  host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

Answer: B

2. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You write the following code segment.

namespace MyServices

{

  [ServiceContract()]

  interface IManageOrders

  {

    ...

  }

}

The service metadata must be exposed at the relative address named meta.

You need to add an endpoint element to the app.config file of the service host.

Which code fragment should you add?

A. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding"

contract="IManageOrders" />

B. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding"

contract="MyServices.IMetadataExchange" />

C. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding"

contract="IMetadataExchange" />

D. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding"

contract="MyServices.IManageOrders" />

Answer: C

3. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5. You have successfully created two interfaces: IMyService and IMyServiceClient.

You need to ensure that the service is able to call methods from the client application by using the IMyServiceClient interface.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract(CallbackContract=typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService

{

  ...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

  ...

}

B. [ServiceContract(CallbackContract=typeof(IMyService))]

public interface IMyService

{

  ...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

  ...

}

C. [ServiceContract(SessionMode=SessionMode.Allowed)]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService : IMyServiceClient

{

  ...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

  ...

}

D. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService

{

  ...

}

[ServiceContract]

public interface IMyServiceClient : ICommunicationObject

{

  ...

}

Answer: A

4. You have created a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The existing service interface is named IMyService, and contains the following code segment.

[ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder", Namespace="http://contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  void DoSomething();

}

You create a new service named IMyServiceV1 that contains an operation named DoSomethingElse.

You need to ensure that existing client applications are still able to access the IMyService.DoSomething method without modifying client code.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract(Namespace="http:?//contoso.com/services/V1")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  void DoSomethingElse();

}

B. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  void DoSomethingElse();

}

C. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrderV1",

 Namespace="http: //contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  void DoSomethingElse();

}

D. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder",

 Namespace="http: //contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  void DoSomethingElse();

}

Answer: D

4. You create a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The service contains the following code segment.

[DataContract]

public class Person

{

  …

 

}

[DataContract]

public class Customer : Person

{

  …

 

}

You need to create a service contract that meets the following requirements:

•The service contract must have an operation contract named GetPerson that returns an object of type Person.

•The GetPerson operation must be able to return an object of type Customer.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType("GetPerson")]

public interface IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  Person GetPerson();

}

B. [ServiceContract]

public interface IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  [ServiceKnownType("Customer")]

  Person GetPerson();

}

C. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(Customer))]

public interface IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  Person GetPerson();

}

D. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType("GetPerson",typeof(Customer))]

public interface IMyService

{

  [OperationContract]

  Person GetPerson();

}

Answer: C 

 1. You create a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You create the following service contract.

<ServiceContract()> _

Public Interface IMath

  <OperationContract()> _

  Function Add(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

  As Integer

End Interface

You need to add an operation contract to perform the Add operation asynchronously.

Which operation contract should you use?

A. <OperationContract(AsyncPattern:=True)> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

As IAsyncResult

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

B. <OperationContract()> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer, _

ByVal cb As AsyncCallback, ByVal state As Object) As Integer

Function EndAdd() As IAsyncResult

C. <OperationContract()> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

As IAsyncResult

<OperationContract()> _

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

D. <OperationContract(AsyncPattern:=True)> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer, _

ByVal cb As AsyncCallback, ByVal state As Object) As IAsyncResult

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

Answer: D

2. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You write the following code segment.

Namespace MyServices

  <ServiceContract()>Interface IManageOrders

    ...

  End Interface

End Namespace

The service metadata must be exposed at the relative address named meta.

You need to add an endpoint element to the app.config file of the service host.

Which code fragment should you add?

A. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding" _

contract="IManageOrders" />

B. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding" _

contract="MyServices.IMetadataExchange" />

C. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding" _

contract="IMetadataExchange" />

D. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding" _

contract="MyServices.IManageOrders" />

Answer: C

3. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5. You have successfully created two interfaces: IMyService and IMyServiceClient.

You need to ensure that the service is able to call methods from the client application by using the IMyServiceClient interface.

Which code segment should you use?

A. <ServiceContract(CallbackContract:=GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

  ...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

B. <ServiceContract(CallbackContract:=GetType(IMyService))> _

Public Interface IMyService

  ...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

C. <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> _

<ServiceKnownType(GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

  Inherits IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

D. <ServiceContract()> _

<ServiceKnownType(GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

  Inherits IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

  ...

End Interface

Answer: A

4. You have created a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The existing service interface is named IMyService, and contains the following code segment.

<ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyService

  <OperationContract()> _

  Sub DoSomething()

End Interface

You create a new service named IMyServiceV1 that contains an operation named DoSomethingElse.

You need to ensure that existing client applications are still able to access the IMyService.DoSomething method without modifying client code.

Which code segment should you use?

A. <ServiceContract(Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services/V1")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

  Inherits IMyService

  <OperationContract()> _

  Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

B. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

  Inherits IMyService

  <OperationContract()> _

  Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

C. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrderV1", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

  Inherits IMyService

  <OperationContract()> _

  Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

D. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

  Inherits IMyService

  <OperationContract()> _

  Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

Answer: D

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1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?A. Start the server.B. Execute wsadmin.C. Configure resources.D. Run the Snoop servlet.Answer: A
2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?A. a data sourceB. connection factoriesC. connection pool settingsD. a JMS activation specificationAnswer: B
3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?A. The administrator can access Application1.B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.Answer: B
4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?A. wsadminB. The administrative agentC. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy ModuleAnswer: C
5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?A. backupConfig -location location B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name Answer: C
6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the clusterB. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancerC. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge ComponentsD. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge ComponentsAnswer: D
7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB ContainerB. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web ContainerC. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web ContainerD. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web ContainerAnswer: D
8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?By using:A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.Answer: A
9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?A. Generic serversB. Application serversC. Managed HTTP serversD. Unmanaged HTTP serversAnswer: D
10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.Answer: C
11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.Answer: C
12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?A. Configure dynamic cachingB. Enable memory-to-memory replicationC. Configure session replication to use a database.D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.Answer: A
13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?A. Node agentB. Job managerC. Work managerD. Administrative agentE. Deployment managerAnswer: BE
14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-inB. Synchronization service and embedded Web serverC. Distributed environment settings in the web containersD. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web serverAnswer: C
15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction logB. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate themC. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)D. Lease-based exclusive locks on filesAnswer: D
16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?A. Client modeB. Server modeC. Not sharedD. Push onlyE. Both push and pullF. Broadcast modeAnswer: CDE
17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.A. Node agentsB. Web servers C. Caching Proxy D. Dynamic cache replicationE. HTTP session persistence and failoverF. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover Answer: DEF
18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.Answer: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?A. Register directly with the job manager.B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers hostD. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.Answer: A
20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.Answer: B
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