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the COG-132 exam tests

2009-10-14T01:00:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-17T23:39:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-17T00:06:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-14T22:39:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-13T23:12:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-12T00:13:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-11T01:29:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-10T00:17:00.001-07:00

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2009-09-08T21:52:00.001-07:00

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2009-09-08T00:16:00.000-07:00

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2009-09-07T01:46:00.000-07:00

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HP0-791 exam for you

2009-08-31T00:48:00.000-07:00

HP0-791 exam for you：
1. A converged network ________________.A. can transmit voice, video, and data over a single infrastructureB. deploys circuit-switching instead of packet-switchingC. can serve more users than a conventional IP networkD. features an edge-oriented architectureAnswer: A
2. Ethernet and IP are the fundamental technologies for converged networks because they ___________. Select TWO.A. offer mature standardsB. tolerate high packet lossC. are widely deployedD. offer high levels of securityE. aren't disrupted by power outagesAnswer: AC
3. How does the ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture support convergence?A. by enhancing edge compression of video streamsB. by ensuring that traffic is prioritized at the edge of the networkC. by translating analog signals to digital signals at the edge of the networkD. by supporting a variety of Layer 3 protocols at the edge and in the core of the networkAnswer: B
4. In a converged network, what does video traffic require in comparison to voice traffic?A. less delayB. higher priorityC. more bandwidthD. more expensive cablingAnswer: C
5. What is the measurable degree to which an IT staff can successfully guarantee the predictable behavior of network services?A. Type of Service (ToS)B. Class of Service (CoS)C. Quality of Service (QoS)D. Guarantee of Service (GoS)Answer: C
6. In comparison to streaming video traffic, voice traffic is typically more ______________.A. difficult to routeB. insensitive to jitterC. sensitive to delayD. bandwidth-intensiveAnswer: C
7. What is IP Type of Service (ToS) an example of?A. hard QoSB. soft QoSC. continual QoSD. virtual QoSAnswer: B
8. A user of a new VoIP infrastructure reports that she unintentionally speaks at the same time as the person on the other end of the line. This condition could be caused by excessive _____________.A. jitterB. delayC. echoD. packet collisionsAnswer: B
9. Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?A. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.C. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.D. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.Answer: B
10. You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 and Layer 3 priority markers for all voice traffic. The VoIP traffic will not cross any WAN links. To support these phones, the customer's new ProCurve 5300xl series switches will require ___________________.A. rate limiting on all ports that support VoIP phonesB. GMB settings for voice trafficC. an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice trafficD. no QoS configuration changesAnswer: D
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The braindumps of HP0-791 exam

2009-08-28T01:54:00.000-07:00

The braindumps of HP0-791 exam:
1. A converged network ________________.A. can transmit voice, video, and data over a single infrastructureB. deploys circuit-switching instead of packet-switchingC. can serve more users than a conventional IP networkD. features an edge-oriented architectureAnswer: A
2. Ethernet and IP are the fundamental technologies for converged networks because they ___________. Select TWO.A. offer mature standardsB. tolerate high packet lossC. are widely deployedD. offer high levels of securityE. aren't disrupted by power outagesAnswer: AC
3. How does the ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture support convergence?A. by enhancing edge compression of video streamsB. by ensuring that traffic is prioritized at the edge of the networkC. by translating analog signals to digital signals at the edge of the networkD. by supporting a variety of Layer 3 protocols at the edge and in the core of the networkAnswer: B
4. In a converged network, what does video traffic require in comparison to voice traffic?A. less delayB. higher priorityC. more bandwidthD. more expensive cablingAnswer: C
5. What is the measurable degree to which an IT staff can successfully guarantee the predictable behavior of network services?A. Type of Service (ToS)B. Class of Service (CoS)C. Quality of Service (QoS)D. Guarantee of Service (GoS)Answer: C
6. In comparison to streaming video traffic, voice traffic is typically more ______________.A. difficult to routeB. insensitive to jitterC. sensitive to delayD. bandwidth-intensiveAnswer: C
7. What is IP Type of Service (ToS) an example of?A. hard QoSB. soft QoSC. continual QoSD. virtual QoSAnswer: B
8. A user of a new VoIP infrastructure reports that she unintentionally speaks at the same time as the person on the other end of the line. This condition could be caused by excessive _____________.A. jitterB. delayC. echoD. packet collisionsAnswer: B
9. Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?A. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.C. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.D. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.Answer: B
10. You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 and Layer 3 priority markers for all voice traffic. The VoIP traffic will not cross any WAN links. To support these phones, the customer's new ProCurve 5300xl series switches will require ___________________.A. rate limiting on all ports that support VoIP phonesB. GMB settings for voice trafficC. an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice trafficD. no QoS configuration changesAnswer: D
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2009-08-25T20:23:00.000-07:00

HP HP0-756 (HP ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions) Certification Exam is an important exam among HP Certifications which play a significant role in IT major people’s study and work. Are you one of them? Are you still worried about the exam and confused of the various materials and fancy training classes? Don’t hesitate! The TestInside is your right choice because we can provide you with the across-the-aboard practice exams, including questions and answer, and also the pinpoint explanation. All these will help you keep the knowledge in mind and master it. We have confidence that you will pass HP0-756 exam on your first try after using our TestInside HP0-756 training Material. That is also our guarantee policy to all customers.

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2009-08-25T00:08:00.000-07:00

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IBM 000-425 exam informations for you

2009-08-24T03:07:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-425 exam informations for you
1. A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution. What should be the first step taken to validate the customer's project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer's current environment
Answer: C
2. Which of the following statements best describes a customer's pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from."
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any additional time."
D. "We are on older technology. I know that getting up to date will help us improve on our customer satisfaction."
Answer: B
3. A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9. Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C
4. A System z competitor has announced their potential entry into the mainframe market. It further claims that their system can run z/OS. What should the sales rep make sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system will also run z/VM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines, subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonstrated to run on Designated Machines, subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C
5. A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows. Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A
6. What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C
7. A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements. Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C
8. A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment. Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A
9. A university physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet performance needs at the best price and consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B
10. A new CIO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure. Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B
11. A moderate sized customer wants to exploit 4Gb FICON on IBM Disk Storage with 40 TB and they are space constrained. Which of the following should the sales specialist recommend?
A. DS4000
B. DS6000
C. DS8000
D. ESS 800
Answer: C
12. Which of the following statements best describes who should be involved in a Systems Assurance Review?
A. All parties directly involved with the install and the Systems Assurance Coordinator.
B. All parties directly involved with the install and the ITSO.
C. All parties directly involved with the install and Poughkeepsie Product Assistance Center (PPAC).
D. All parties directly involved in the install except business partners
Answer: A
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Cisco 642-975 Exam Answers in TestInside is your best choice

2009-08-21T02:28:00.000-07:00

Cisco 642-975 Exam Answers

1. NetQoS adopts the method of performance priority to manage the network infrastructures, which main functions does it provide?(Select all appropriate)A. The end-to-end performance monitoringB. Analyzing the communication trafficC. Device performance managementD. IT cost calculationE. Trace network analysisAnswer: ABCDE

2. Which three statements best describe Cisco Application Networking Manager(ANM)? (Choose three)A. Cisco ANM can manage virtual products and management-level domains through a number of Cisco ACE modulesB. Be able to discover, deploy, monitor and report a number of virtual products on Cisco ACE modulesC. Accomplish completely transparent deploymentD. The speed is low in the implementation process.Answer: ABC

3. Which installation requirement is for Cisco ANM?A. Windows 2003 Server 2 GB RAM 120 GB HDB. Windows NT 4.1 2 GB RAM 50 GB HDC. Ubuntu Linux Server 7.0 4GB RAM 80 GB HDD. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 4.5 2 GB RAM 60 GB HDAnswer: D

4. Taking a Cisco ACE Module implementation into consideration, a site survey should first be taken to confirm which two requirements? (Choose two.)A. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine 32 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterB. Cisco Catalyst 4500 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Supervisor Engine 4 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(31)SGA or laterC. Cisco 7600 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco 7600 Series Supervisor Engine 720 Cisco 7600 Series Route Switch Processor 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterD. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch chassis with an open-fabric-enabled port Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine 720 Cisco IOS Software Release 12.2(18)SXF4 or laterAnswer: CD

5. A single Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance deals with all data center and the data center traffic. At which traffic level point will you consider purchasing a second Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance?A. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 80,000B. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 20,000C. when the L7 Perf CPS reaches 40,000D. when the L4 Perf CPS reaches 100,000Answer: D

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2009-08-21T02:26:00.000-07:00

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2009-08-19T21:48:00.000-07:00

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2009-08-19T01:51:00.000-07:00

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The PK1-003 exam Q&A

2009-08-18T01:25:00.000-07:00

The PK1-003 exam questions and answers:
1. In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

2. A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

3. Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

4. A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

5. Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

Share with the 1Y0-A09 exam information

2009-08-16T18:54:00.000-07:00

1Y0-A09 free demo at Certinside:

1. Scenario: An administrator is installing XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 in an environment. The administrator has two disks available for storage. According to best practices, how should the administrator configure the local disk storage repositories (SRs) during the initial XenServer installation?

A. Install XenServer on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

B. Install XenServer on one disk and the virtual machine SR on the other disk

C. Install XenServer and an in-place upgrade partition on one disk and the control domain on the other disk

D. Install XenServer and the virtual machine SR on one disk and an in-place upgrade partition on the other disk

Answer: B

2. According to best practices, which step should an administrator perform before booting the installer CD to upgrade to XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 from XenServer 4.x?

A. Suspend any running virtual machines

B. Delete the current server configuration

C. Re-enter the physical network configuration

D. Backup the existing virtual machines (VMs) with a VM export

Answer: D

3. Which two physical hardware configurations are supported by XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0? (Choose two.)

A. 512GB RAM

B. 256GB RAM

C. 32 CPU cores

D. 128 CPU cores

E. 32-bit architecture

F. 64-bit architecture

Answer: CF

4. To allow for rapid deployment of XenServer hosts in a large environment, an administrator decides to install XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 using a network boot process. To which type of server must the administrator configure DHCP to communicate?

A. FTP

B. HTTP

C. TFTP

D. HTTPS

Answer: C

5. Where can an administrator determine when a XenServer Enterprise Edition 5.0 license will expire?

A. XenCenter

B. XenServer Tools

C. mycitrix.com web site

D. Citrix License Management Console

Answer: A

6. Scenario: An organization has a single installation of XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.0. The administrator plans to upgrade the host to version 5.0. Which upgrade path should the administrator take?

A. Upgrade the XenServer using Emergency Mode

B. Upgrade directly from version 4.0 to version 5.0

C. Upgrade to version 4.1 and then upgrade to version 5.0

D. Upgrade XenCenter to 5.0 and use the Updates Manager

Answer: C

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COG-310 exam study notes

2009-08-14T22:07:00.001-07:00

COG-310 IT test questions and answers:

1. When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B

2. An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer: A

3. Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C

4. Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D

5. When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

6. Why would a developer create a consolidated element?
A. To display comments in a cube.
B. To apply alternate names to an element.
C. To store numeric data.
D. To calculate an aggregation.
Answer: D

7. Which of the following element properties is used to perform subtraction within the dimension hierarchy?
A. Weight
B. Format
C. Attribute
D. Aggregation
Answer: A

8. Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?
A. String
B. Attribute
C. Consolidation
D. Simple
Answer: D

9. Why would an application developer assign a negative weight to an element in a dimension?
A. To store credit balances without a negative sign.
B. To provide an alternate drill down path to the dimension.
C. To display data in different formats.
D. To store data in multiple hierarchies.
Answer: A

10. Which of the following attributes can be used to display element names in multiple languages?
A. Text
B. String
C. Alias
D. Format
Answer: C

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70-503 VB exam infromation at TestInside

2009-08-13T20:58:00.000-07:00

70-503 VB exam infromation at TestInside:

1. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You need to programmatically add the following endpoint definition to the service. Which code segment should you use?

A. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService";

BasicHttpBinding binding1=new BasicHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

B. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService/service";

BasicHttpBinding binding1=new BasicHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

C. String baseAddress="http: //localhost:8000/ExamService";

WsHttpBinding binding1=new WsHttpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

D. String baseAddress="net.tcp: //localhost:8000/ExamService/service";

NetTcpBinding binding1=new NetTcpBinding();

using(ServiceHost host=new ServiceHost(typeof(ExamService)))

{

host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IExam),binding1,baseAddress);

}

Answer: B

2. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You write the following code segment.

namespace MyServices

{

[ServiceContract()]

interface IManageOrders

{

...

}

}

The service metadata must be exposed at the relative address named meta.

You need to add an endpoint element to the app.config file of the service host.

Which code fragment should you add?

A. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding"

contract="IManageOrders" />

B. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding"

contract="MyServices.IMetadataExchange" />

C. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding"

contract="IMetadataExchange" />

D. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding"

contract="MyServices.IManageOrders" />

Answer: C

3. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5. You have successfully created two interfaces: IMyService and IMyServiceClient.

You need to ensure that the service is able to call methods from the client application by using the IMyServiceClient interface.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract(CallbackContract=typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService

{

...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

...

}

B. [ServiceContract(CallbackContract=typeof(IMyService))]

public interface IMyService

{

...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

...

}

C. [ServiceContract(SessionMode=SessionMode.Allowed)]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService : IMyServiceClient

{

...

}

public interface IMyServiceClient

{

...

}

D. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(IMyServiceClient))]

public interface IMyService

{

...

}

[ServiceContract]

public interface IMyServiceClient : ICommunicationObject

{

...

}

Answer: A

4. You have created a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The existing service interface is named IMyService, and contains the following code segment.

[ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder", Namespace="http://contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

void DoSomething();

}

You create a new service named IMyServiceV1 that contains an operation named DoSomethingElse.

You need to ensure that existing client applications are still able to access the IMyService.DoSomething method without modifying client code.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract(Namespace="http:?//contoso.com/services/V1")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

void DoSomethingElse();

}

B. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

void DoSomethingElse();

}

C. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrderV1",

Namespace="http: //contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

void DoSomethingElse();

}

D. [ServiceContract(Name="SvcOrder",

Namespace="http: //contoso.com/services")]

public interface IMyServiceV1 : IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

void DoSomethingElse();

}

Answer: D

4. You create a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The service contains the following code segment.

[DataContract]

public class Person

{

…

}

[DataContract]

public class Customer : Person

{

…

}

You need to create a service contract that meets the following requirements:

•The service contract must have an operation contract named GetPerson that returns an object of type Person.

•The GetPerson operation must be able to return an object of type Customer.

Which code segment should you use?

A. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType("GetPerson")]

public interface IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

Person GetPerson();

}

B. [ServiceContract]

public interface IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

[ServiceKnownType("Customer")]

Person GetPerson();

}

C. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType(typeof(Customer))]

public interface IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

Person GetPerson();

}

D. [ServiceContract]

[ServiceKnownType("GetPerson",typeof(Customer))]

public interface IMyService

{

[OperationContract]

Person GetPerson();

}

Answer: C

1. You create a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You create the following service contract.

<ServiceContract()> _

Public Interface IMath

<OperationContract()> _

Function Add(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

As Integer

End Interface

You need to add an operation contract to perform the Add operation asynchronously.

Which operation contract should you use?

A. <OperationContract(AsyncPattern:=True)> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

As IAsyncResult

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

B. <OperationContract()> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer, _

ByVal cb As AsyncCallback, ByVal state As Object) As Integer

Function EndAdd() As IAsyncResult

C. <OperationContract()> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer) _

As IAsyncResult

<OperationContract()> _

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

D. <OperationContract(AsyncPattern:=True)> _

Function BeginAdd(ByVal num1 As Integer, ByVal num2 As Integer, _

ByVal cb As AsyncCallback, ByVal state As Object) As IAsyncResult

Function EndAdd(ByVal res As IAsyncResult) As Integer

Answer: D

2. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

You write the following code segment.

Namespace MyServices

<ServiceContract()>Interface IManageOrders

...

End Interface

End Namespace

The service metadata must be exposed at the relative address named meta.

You need to add an endpoint element to the app.config file of the service host.

Which code fragment should you add?

A. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding" _

contract="IManageOrders" />

B. <endpoint address="meta" binding="wsHttpBinding" _

contract="MyServices.IMetadataExchange" />

C. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding" _

contract="IMetadataExchange" />

D. <endpoint address="meta" binding="mexHttpBinding" _

contract="MyServices.IManageOrders" />

Answer: C

3. You are creating a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5. You have successfully created two interfaces: IMyService and IMyServiceClient.

You need to ensure that the service is able to call methods from the client application by using the IMyServiceClient interface.

Which code segment should you use?

A. <ServiceContract(CallbackContract:=GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

B. <ServiceContract(CallbackContract:=GetType(IMyService))> _

Public Interface IMyService

...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

C. <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> _

<ServiceKnownType(GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

Inherits IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

D. <ServiceContract()> _

<ServiceKnownType(GetType(IMyServiceClient))> _

Public Interface IMyService

Inherits IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

Public Interface IMyServiceClient

...

End Interface

Answer: A

4. You have created a Windows Communication Foundation service by using Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.

The existing service interface is named IMyService, and contains the following code segment.

<ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyService

<OperationContract()> _

Sub DoSomething()

End Interface

You create a new service named IMyServiceV1 that contains an operation named DoSomethingElse.

You need to ensure that existing client applications are still able to access the IMyService.DoSomething method without modifying client code.

Which code segment should you use?

A. <ServiceContract(Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services/V1")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

Inherits IMyService

<OperationContract()> _

Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

B. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

Inherits IMyService

<OperationContract()> _

Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

C. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrderV1", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

Inherits IMyService

<OperationContract()> _

Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

D. <ServiceContract(Name:="SvcOrder", _

Namespace:="http: //contoso.com/services")> _

Public Interface IMyServiceV1

Inherits IMyService

<OperationContract()> _

Sub DoSomethingElse()

End Interface

Answer: D

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2009-08-12T01:47:00.000-07:00

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2009-08-11T02:11:00.000-07:00

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000-377 free demo

2009-08-07T01:21:00.000-07:00

IBM 000-377 exam questions and answers:
1. Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs automatically after installation?A. Start the server.B. Execute wsadmin.C. Configure resources.D. Run the Snoop servlet.Answer: A
2. Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for establishing and maintaining resource connections?A. a data sourceB. connection factoriesC. connection pool settingsD. a JMS activation specificationAnswer: B
3. global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated repository. The administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating system registry and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating system user ID App1Admin?Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure Application1?A. The administrator can access Application1.B. The administrator can disable Application1 security.C. App1Admin can disable Application1 security.D. App1Admin can access the administrative console.Answer: B
4. Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other facilities does WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?A. wsadminB. The administrative agentC. The Profile Management Tool (PMT)D. Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy ModuleAnswer: C
5. When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings, which of the following commands would be relevant?A. backupConfig -location location B. restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name C. manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name D. wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name Answer: C
6. What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a farm of Web servers?A. Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the clusterB. Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancerC. Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge ComponentsD. Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge ComponentsAnswer: D
7. What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a request from a Web browser to a servlet?A. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB ContainerB. Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web ContainerC. Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web ContainerD. External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web ContainerAnswer: D
8. How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on different hosts in a network?By using:A. a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative agents.B. a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their node agents.C. a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative agents.D. an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their administrative service.Answer: A
9. Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?A. Generic serversB. Application serversC. Managed HTTP serversD. Unmanaged HTTP serversAnswer: D
10. What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them together in a topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?A. Enable protocol transformation between buses.B. Improve the availability of the persistent storage.C. Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.D. Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.Answer: C
11. Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node groups to implement a distributed environment? To:A. segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.B. define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.C. enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration purposes.D. allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for workload management.Answer: C
12. A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web application running in a clustered environment.What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web application?A. Configure dynamic cachingB. Enable memory-to-memory replicationC. Configure session replication to use a database.D. Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.Answer: A
13. A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application within a flexible management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using wsadmin scripts by connecting to which of the following components?A. Node agentB. Job managerC. Work managerD. Administrative agentE. Deployment managerAnswer: BE
14. What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP Session persistence?A. Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-inB. Synchronization service and embedded Web serverC. Distributed environment settings in the web containersD. Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web serverAnswer: C
15. When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight transactions from the transaction log, what is required from the file system?A. RAID disks must be used to host the transaction logB. Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate themC. File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)D. Lease-based exclusive locks on filesAnswer: D
16. What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?A. Client modeB. Server modeC. Not sharedD. Push onlyE. Both push and pullF. Broadcast modeAnswer: CDE
17. What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the following.A. Node agentsB. Web servers C. Caching Proxy D. Dynamic cache replicationE. HTTP session persistence and failoverF. Stateful session EJB persistence and failover Answer: DEF
18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a flexible management topology and the network deployment cell?A. Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.B. Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.C. The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.D. The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment manager.Answer: A
19. In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management environment, which one of the following steps must be completed?A. Register directly with the job manager.B. Register with the node agent on the job managers host.C. Register with an administrative agent on the job managers hostD. First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.Answer: A
20. Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation of WebSphere Application Server?A. The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.B. The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated in the future.C. The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include administrative security.D. The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments to be done over several installation attempts.Answer: B
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Exam 000-431 Practice Test with TestInside

2009-08-06T01:17:00.000-07:00

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Related exam:000-630 exam and 000-669 exam and 000-430 exam and 000-M25 exam.

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2009-08-05T02:17:00.000-07:00

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The related :000-431 exam and 000-630 exam and 000-669 exam and 000-430 exam.

000-669 IT test

2009-08-04T01:42:00.000-07:00

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The related exam:000-415,000-093 and 000-630

Take the 70-503 CSharp actual exam

2009-07-31T00:29:00.000-07:00

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The related exam:70-502 CSharp,70-271 and 70-292

70-282 IT exam study

2009-07-30T01:23:00.001-07:00

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The related exam:70-271,70-238 and 70-237

IT certification 70-528

2009-07-29T00:10:00.000-07:00

Exam: Microsoft 70-528

Title: MS.NET Framework 2.0-Web-based Client Development
Version : Demo

1. You have an SQL query that takes one minute to execute. You use the following code segment to execute the SQL query asynchronously.
Dim ar As IAsyncResult = cmd.BeginExecuteReader()
You need to execute a method named DoWork() that takes one second to run while the SQL query is executing. DoWork() must run as many times as possible while the SQL query is executing.
Which code segment should you use?
A. While ar.AsyncWaitHandle Is Nothing
DoWork()
End While
dr = cmd.EndExecuteReader(ar)
B. While Not ar.IsCompleted
DoWork()
End While
dr = cmd.EndExecuteReader(ar)
C. While Thread.CurrentThread.ThreadState = ThreadState.Running
DoWork()
End While
dr = cmd.EndExecuteReader(ar)
D. While Not ar.AsyncWaitHandle.WaitOne()
DoWork()
End While
dr = cmd.EndExecuteReader(ar)
Answer: B

2. Your Web site uses custom Themes. Your Web site must support additional Themes based on the user's company name.
The company name is set when a user logs on to the Web site. The company's Theme name is stored in a variable named ThemeName.
You need to use this variable to dynamically set the Web site's Theme.
What should you do?
A. Add the following code segment to the markup source of each page on the Web site.

B. Add the following code segment to the Load event of each page on the Web site.
Page.Theme = ThemeName;
C. Add the following code segment to the PreInit event of each page on the Web site.
Page.Theme = ThemeName;
D. Add the following code segment to the Web site's configuration file.

Answer: C

3. Your Web site uses custom Themes. Your Web site must support additional Themes based on the user's company name.
The company name is set when a user logs on to the Web site. The company's Theme name is stored in a variable named ThemeName.
You need to use this variable to dynamically set the Web site's Theme.
What should you do?
A. Add the following code segment to the markup source of each page on the Web site.

B. Add the following code segment to the Load event of each page on the Web site.
Page.Theme = ThemeName
C. Add the following code segment to the PreInit event of each page on the Web site.
Page.Theme = ThemeName
D. Add the following code segment to the Web site's configuration file.

Answer: C

4. You create a Web Form. The Web Form allows users to calculate values and display the results in a label named lblResults.
You need to capture all unhandled exceptions on the Web Form through the Error event. The Error event must capture each unhandled exception and display it on the Web Form.
Which code segment should you use?
A. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
lblResults.Text = e.ToString();
e=null;
}
B. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
lblResults.Text = Server.GetLastError().ToString();
Server.ClearError();
}
C. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
Response.Write(e.ToString());
e=null;
}
D. protected void Page_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) {
Response.Write(Server.GetLastError().ToString());
Server.ClearError();
}
Answer: D
Other IT exam:70-453,70-432 and 70-510

70-294 IT certification

2009-07-27T00:34:00.000-07:00

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TestInside help you pass the 70-236 IT exam!

2009-07-24T01:57:00.000-07:00

Exam: Microsoft 70-236
Title : TS:Configuring Exchenge Server 2007
Version : Demo
1. You need to configure the minimum permissions necessary for a user to be able to configure mailbox databases on an Exchange Server 2007 computer. What should you do? A. Delegate Exchange Administrator privileges to the user account at the organization level. B. Add the user account to the Exchange Server Administrators role. C. Add the user account to the Exchange Recipient Administrators role. D. Add the user account to the Exchange Organization Administrators role. Answer: B
2. Your company s Active Directory forest consists of a single site that has a root domain and one child domain. You need to prepare Active Directory and the domains prior to installing the first Exchange Server 2007 computer. Which two commands should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Setup /ForestPrep B. Setup /PrepareAD C. Setup /DomainPrep D. Setup /PrepareAllDomains Answer: B AND D 3. You are preparing to transition from Exchange 2000 Server to Exchange Server 2007. The environment consists of a single Windows 2000 native mode Active Directory domain and an Exchange 2000 organization running in mixed mode. The schema master, domain naming master, and PDC emulator all run on a Microsoft Windows 2000 Server domain controller. You need to prepare the environment for Exchange 2007. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.) A. Move the PDC emulator role to a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2003 with Service Pack 1. B. Move the schema master role to a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2003 with Service Pack 1. C. Move the domain naming master role to a domain controller that runs Windows Server 2003 with Service Pack 1. D. Convert the Exchange 2000 organization to native mode. Answer: B AND D
4. Your companys e-mail domain is contoso.com. Three Edge Transport servers in your Exchange Server 2007 organization will accept Internet mail. The servers are named Exch1, Exch2, and Exch3. You need to load balance Exch2 and Exch3, and you need to configure Exch1 as a backup server. Which three MX records should you specify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.) A. contoso.com MX preference = 10, mail exchanger = Exch1.contoso.com B. contoso.com MX preference = 10, mail exchanger = Exch3.contoso.com C. contoso.com MX preference = 10, mail exchanger = Exch2.contoso.com D. contoso.com MX preference = 20, mail exchanger = Exch2.contoso.com E. contoso.com MX preference = 20, mail exchanger = Exch1.contoso.com F. contoso.com MX preference = 20, mail exchanger = Exch3.contoso.com Answer: B AND C AND E 5. A custom Security Configuration Wizard (SCW) policy is applied to an Exchange Server 2007 Edge Transport server named Exch1. You want to apply this policy to a new Edge Transport server named Exch2. You install SCW on Exch2. You copy the existing SCW policy to Exch2 as C:\ExchangeSCWPolicy.xml. You need to apply the custom policy to Exch2. What should you do? A. First, use SCW to apply the C:\ExchangeSCWPolicy.xml policy. Then, run the Scwcmd register /kbname:"Ex2007KB" /kbfile:"%programfiles%\Microsoft\Exchange Server\scripts\Exchange2007Edge.xml" command. B. First, use SCW to apply the C:\ExchangeSCWPolicy.xml policy. Then, run the Scwcmd register /kbname:"Ex2007EdgeKB" /kbfile:"%programfiles%\Microsoft\Exchange Server\scripts\Exchange2007.xml" command. C. First, run the Sc wcmd register /kbname:" Ex2007KB " / kbfile:" %programfiles %\Microsoft\Exchange Server\scripts\Exchange2007 Edge .xml " command. Then, use SCW to apply the C:\ExchangeSCWPolicy.xml policy. D. First, r un the Scwcmd register /kbname:"Ex2007EdgeKB" / kbfile:" %programfiles %\Mic rosoft\Exchange Server\scripts\Exchange2007 .xml " command. Then, use SCW to apply the C:\ExchangeSCWPolicy.xml policy. Answer: C

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70-446 study material

2009-07-23T01:02:00.000-07:00

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The related exam:70-292 and 70-536

640-822 practice exam

2009-07-15T21:38:00.000-07:00

Known also as the Cisco Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers (640-822), this exam plays an integral role in obtaining your certification. All Cisco certification exams are extremely detailed and cover many different technological areas. We designed the 640-822 questions and answers for this very purpose, to prepare you for the unexpected. Beyond the testing center, the skills you learn and the knowledge you confirm using the 640-822 practice exams and exam simulators will translate directly into your daily work environment.

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The related exam:640-721 and 640-444

650-059 Exam Study

2009-07-14T21:54:00.000-07:00

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The related exam:642-453 and 350-030

Cisco 642-825

2009-07-13T21:35:00.000-07:00

Exam: Cisco 642-825

Title: Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks

Version : Demo

1. What are three methods of network reconnaissance? (Choose three.)
A. IP spoofing
B. one-time password
C. dictionary attack
D. packet sniffer
E. ping sweep
F. port scan
Answer: DEF

2. What are two steps that must be taken when mitigating a worm attack? (Choose two.)
A. Inoculate systems by applying update patches.
B. Limit traffic rate.
C. Apply authentication.
D. Quarantine infected machines.
E. Enable anti-spoof measures
Answer: AD

3. Which three statements about IOS Firewall configurations are true? (Choose three.)
A. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the inbound direction on the secured interface.
B. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface.
C. The ACL applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
D. The ACL applied in the inbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
E. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the access-list for the returning traffic must be a standard ACL.
F. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the IP inspection rule must be applied to the secured interface.
Answer: ABD

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the authentication method used to authenticate users who want privileged access into Router1? (Choose two.)
A. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is unavailable, the router will attempt to authenticate the user using its local database.
B. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the RADIUS server is unavailable, the authentication process stops and no other authentication method is attempted.
C. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the user authentication fails, the router will attempt to authenticate the user using its local database.
D. All users will be authenticated using the RADIUS server. If the user authentication fails, the authentication process stops and no other authentication method is attempted.
E. The default login authentication method is applied automatically to all lines including console, auxiliary, TTY, and VTY lines.
Answer: AD

5. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the presented information, which configuration was completed on the router CPE?
A. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Dialer0 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
B. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Dialer0 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
C. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/0 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
D. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/0 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
E. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/1 CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
F. CPE(config)# ip nat inside source list 101 interface Ethernet 0/1 overload CPE(config)# access-list 101 permit ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any
Answer: B

6. Refer to the exhibit. FastEthernet0/0 has been assigned a network address of 200.0.1.2/24 and no ACL has been applied to that interface. Serial0/0/0 has been assigned a network address of 200.0.0.1/30. Assuming that there are no network-related problems, which ping will be successful?
A. from 200.0.0.1 to 200.0.0.2
B. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.0.1
C. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.1.1
D. from 200.0.0.2 to 200.0.1.2
E. from 200.0.1.1 to 200.0.0.2
F. from 200.0.1.2 to 200.0.0.2
Answer: A

the related exam:642-845

Technorati 标签: 642-825

642-241 exam at testinside

2009-07-12T22:02:00.000-07:00

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The related exam:642-961

Cisco 640-553 exam

2009-07-10T22:35:00.000-07:00

Exam 640-553 Description
The 640-553 Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS) exam is associated with the CCNA Security certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of securing Cisco routers and switches and their associated networks. It leads to validated skills for installation, troubleshooting and monitoring of network devices to maintain integrity, confidentiality and availability of data and devices and develops competency in the technologies that Cisco uses in its security infrastructure.
Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS) course.
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642-453 exam at testinside

2009-07-09T21:22:00.000-07:00

Exam 642-453 Description
The Routing and Switching Solutions for Systems Engineers 642-453 RSSSE is the exam associated with the Routing and Switching Solutions Specialist certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of customer's complex technical and business requirements, customer advanced technology requirements, capabilities of Cisco routing and switching solutions, solutions that encompass the features of advanced routing and switching to meet customer requirements.
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646-230 practice test

2009-07-08T21:38:00.000-07:00

The 646-230 exam provides you with the technical knowledge and skills to understand advanced IP addressing. It also enables you to identify advanced IP routing principles including static and dynamic routing characteristics. In order to be able to configure the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol, Open Shortest Path First Protocol and the Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System Protocol, you must take the 646-230 exam. Moreover, this Cisco certification helps you gain knowledge of manipulating routing updates. Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks Exam also trains you to configure Basic Border Gateway Protocol.
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HP2-027 questions

2009-07-07T21:38:00.000-07:00

HP2-027 questions:
1. An engineering drawing firm is planning to upgrade their tape backup systems, but they are constrained by their investment in older tapes. They need systems that will preserve their old data by reading backward two generations.Which tape technology provides read compatibility for two prior generations? Select TWO.A. SDLTB. AITC. LTOD. DLTE. SLRAnswer: CD
2. Which web-based software solution enables a corporate customer to track PC (business desktop, notebooks and workstations) assets, alerts, diagnostics and SoftPaq distribution across an enterprise environment?A. Altiris Deployment ServerB. HP OpenView Helpdesk softwareC. HP Essentials softwareD. HP Client Manager toolAnswer: D
3. Which backup method provides the lowest TCO?A. shared SCSI backupB. local SCSI backupC. data replication backupD. automated centralized backupAnswer: A
4. Which networking security option can be used to authenticate wireless LAN (802.11b/g/a) access?A. VLANB. DMZC. RADIUSD. BOOTPAnswer: C
5. Which advantage does fiber optic cable offer over copper cabling?A. lower reliance on hubs and switchesB. longer distancesC. easier implementationD. lower costAnswer: B
6. What is the benefit of using server virtualization technology, such as VMware, in the x86 server environment?A. to maximize the utilization of x86 server resourcesB. to enable clustering without single-point-of-failureC. to enable failover-failback between x86 processorsD. to maximize I/O performance by sharing with multiple serversAnswer: D
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COG-112 exam at certinside

2009-07-06T20:52:00.000-07:00

To best prepare you for your COG-112 certification exam, we now offer you the ultimate all in one COG-112 certification course packages that will cover all the COG-112 certification testing objectives for all COG-112 certification exams and levels.
1. The following report was created in Report Studio using a relational package and shows revenue by sales rep, city, and country. What will the report show if the author creates a detail filter for Revenue>500,000 and applies the filter AFTER auto aggregation? A. Only reps who generated total revenue greater than 500,000.B. Only cities that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.C. Only countries that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.D. Only reps who had individual sales transactions of greater than 500,000.Answer: A
2. An author wants to create a filter on this report to only show Product line totals larger than 1 billion. What calculation is used to create this filter? A. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)] for [Product line] >1000000000Application = After auto aggregation B. Detail filter as: [Total (Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product lineC. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)]>1000000000Scope = Product lineD. Summary filter as: [Total(Revenue)] for [Product line]>1000000000)Application = After auto aggregationAnswer: C
3. An author wants to apply formatting to a list report. In Report Studio, the author clicks a column in the list, clicks Select Ancestor, and then clicks List Columns. In this situation, which of the following is true?A. Formatting all columns will also format aggregate rows in the list.B. Formatting all columns overrides formatting for an existing formatted column in the list.C. Formatting all columns affects all subsequent objects added to the report page.D. Formatting all columns ensures any new columns added to the list will have the same formatting.Answer: D
4. In Report Studio, what is a baseline?A. A value in a list report that other values are compared against.B. A border in a crosstab that separates measures from aggregate totals.C. A constant value drawn on a chart to indicate major divisions in the data.D. A break point that keeps part of a report stationary while the user scrolls.Answer: C
5. In Report Studio, what is true about a crosstab node?A. It contains at least one nested crosstab node.B. It contains at least one crosstab node member.C. It contains more than one nested crosstab node.D. It must contain more than one crosstab node member.Answer: B6. The sales department requires a report that numerically compares the gross profit generated for all product lines in each territory. In Report Studio, which is the most appropriate report type?A. ListB. Chart C. CrosstabD. RepeaterAnswer: C
related exam:
cog-400

640-802 free demo show

2009-07-05T22:20:00.000-07:00

Exam : Cisco 640-802

Title : Cisco Certified Network Associate

Version : V11.69

1. Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command? (Choose two.)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: CE

2. A network administrator must configure 200 switch ports to accept traffic from only the currently attached host devices. What would be the most efficient way to configure MAC-level security on all these ports?
A. Visually verify the MAC addresses and then telnet to the switches to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
B. Have end users e-mail their MAC addresses. Telnet to the switch to enter the switchport-port security mac-address command.
C. Use the switchport port-security MAC address sticky command on all the switch ports that have end devices connected to them.
D. Use show mac-address-table to determine the addresses that are associated with each port and then enter the commands on each switch for MAC address port-security.
Answer: C

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about how router JAX will choose a path to the 10.1.3.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured? (Choose three.)
A. By default, if RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed into the routing table.
B. The equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL and JAX- NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table if RIPv2 is the routing protocol.
C. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, only the path JAX-ORL will be installed in the routing table by default.
D. When EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths JAX-CHI-ORL, and JAX-NY-ORL will be installed in the routing table by default.
E. With EIGRP and OSPF both running on the network with their default configurations, the EIGRP paths will be installed in the routing table.
F. The OSPF paths will be installed in the routing table, if EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the network with their default configurations.
Answer: ADE

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Answer: BC

5. The Ethernet networks connected to router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for router R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1, according to this summary? (Choose two.)
A. 192.1.159.2
B. 192.1.160.11
C. 192.1.138.41
D. 192.1.151.254
E. 192.1.143.145
F. 192.1.1.144
Answer: AD

6. What are three IPv6 transition mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. 6to4 tunneling
B. VPN tunneling
C. GRE tunneling
D. ISATAP tunneling
E. PPP tunneling
F. Teredo tunneling
Answer: ADF

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70-294 IT certification at testinside

2009-07-03T22:12:00.000-07:00

"Planning, Implementing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 AD Infrastructure", also known as 70-294 exam, is a Microsoft certification.Preparing for the 70-294 exam? Searching 70-294 Test Questions, 70-294 Practice Exam, 70-294 Dumps?
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2009-07-02T21:51:00.000-07:00

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2009-07-01T22:27:00.000-07:00

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2009-06-30T21:59:00.000-07:00

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SUN Certifications 310-016 exam

2009-06-29T19:55:00.000-07:00

"SUN CERTIFIED SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR FOR SOLARIS 9,UPGRADE", also known as 310-016 exam, is a SUN certification.
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All the 642-901 is filled at once

2009-05-14T19:46:00.000-07:00

In other years, spring tiptoes in. It pauses, overcome by 642-901, like my grandchild at the door, peeping in, ducking out of sight, giggling in the hallway. “I know you’re out there,” I cry. “Come in!” And April slips into our arms.
Springs are not always the same. In some years, April bursts upon Virginia hills in one prodigious leap – and all the 642-901 is filled at once, whole choruses of tulips, arabesques of forsythia, cadenzas of flowering plum. The trees grow leaves overnight.
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70-299 was not therapy

2009-05-14T19:42:00.000-07:00

70-299 was not therapy, counselors or medications. It did not cost money, require connections or great privilege. It was love: just simple, plain, easy to give. Love is primal. It is comprised of compassion, care, security, and a leap of 70-299. I believe in the power of love to transform. I believe in the power of love to heal. It has been four years. Luke is a smart, funny, happy fourth-grader. He is loaded with charm and is a natural athlete. His 70-299 say he is well behaved and works very hard. Our neighbor says she has never seen a happier kid.
When I think back, I am amazed at what transformed this abused, terrified little creature.

His jn0-561 riveting true life story.

2009-05-14T01:55:00.000-07:00

Ishmael Beah one of many African children, who were forced into local conflicts as boy Soldier. A Long Way Gone, is his jn0-561 riveting true life story. In this book about 12 year old wandered a land rendered unrecognizable by violence and fled attacking rebels by thirteen picking sides with government army. Beah, simple small village boy, found jn0-561 that he was capable of evil acts. Most of African wars are fought by children hopped-up on drugs and wielding AK-47s. Children are becoming soldiers of choice.

The growing number of 642-845

2009-05-11T23:20:00.000-07:00

This exciting research is just beginning. And in the meantime, companies are also experimenting with adding vitamins, minerals, medicines, and other substances that could give gum the power to cure headaches and fight everything from serious diseases to bad breath.
These enhanced gums are part of the growing number of 642-845 and drinks that contain health-boosting ingredients. If you're already a gum fan, that's probably welcome news.
Giant mixers then combine vats of melted gum base with powders, syrups, and sweeteners. Other machines roll the goo into sticks or press them into pellets. Packaging is the final step.
Just what can gum do for your health? Many studies show that chewing gum after meals fights cavities by stimulating the 1Z0-225 production of saliva. Saliva helps wash away bacteria that damage our teeth.
Americans chew about 1.8 pounds of gum per person each year, according to the U.S. Census Bureau. By showing that gum chewing can be healthy, companies that make and sell gum hope that we'll chew even more.
Most schools ban chewing gum, but in a few years they might consider changing that rule. Why? Scientists are finding evidence that gum chewing may be good for your health. It may even help boost your PK0-002 test scores.

156-315.65 is an advanced Core security certification

2009-05-10T20:47:00.000-07:00

156-315.65 is an advanced Core security certification built on CCSA NGX, confirming in-depth skills and expertise in managing and supporting Check Point products. Designed for more experienced security professionals, 156-315.65 certification is one of the most highly recognized and respected vendor-specific security certifications available. Proficiencies include configuring and managing VPN-1/FireWall-1 as an Internet security solution and virtual private network (VPN), using encryption technologies to implement site-to-site and remote access VPNs, and configuring content security by enabling Java blocking and anti-virus checking.

This Technology Specialist exam 83-640.

2009-05-08T22:06:00.000-07:00

The Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist on Windows Server 2008 credential is intended
for IT professionals who work in the complex computing environment of medium-sized to large
companies. The MCTS candidate should have a minimum of one year of experience implementing and
administering a network operating system in an environment.This Technology Specialist exam, Exam 83-640: TS: Windows Server 2008 Active Directory,
Configuring, became available in November 2008. This exam maps to the same objectives as 83-640
but this version 83-640 contains a Performance Based component in addition to the standard exam
item types. This xam is available in English only.

000-646 Exam is a popular Certification

2009-05-07T20:11:00.000-07:00

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You need to plan the deployment of the new exam 70-293

2009-05-06T20:19:00.000-07:00

The design also requires modified settings for servers in an application role. These settings
include system service startup requirements, renaming the administrator account, and
more stringent account lockout policies. The security team created a security template
named Application.Exam 70-293 You need to plan the deployment of the new security design. You need to ensure that all security settings for the application servers are standardized, and that after the deployment, the security settings on all application servers meet the 70-293 design requirements. What should you do?
A. Apply the Setup security.inf template first, the Hisecws.inf template next, and then the
Application.inf template.
B. Apply the Application.inf template and then the Hisecws.inf template.
C. Apply the Application.inf template first, the Setup security.inf template next, and then
the Hisecws.inf template.
D. Apply the Setup security.inf template and then the Application.inf template.
Answer: A
2. You are a network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single
Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All client computers run
Windows XP Professional. The Active Directory domain contains three organizational
units (OUs): Payroll Users, Payroll Servers, and Finance Servers. The Windows XP
Professional computers used by the users in the payroll department are in the Payroll
Users OU. The Windows Server 2003 computers used by the payroll department are in
the Payroll Servers OU. The Windows Server 2003 computers used by the finance
department are in the Finance Servers OU. You are planning the baseline security
configuration for the payroll department. The company's written security policy requires
that all network communications with servers in the Payroll Servers OU must be secured
by using IPsec. The written security policy states that IPSec must not be used on any
other servers in the company. You need to ensure that the baseline security configuration
for the payroll department complies with the written security policy. You also need to
ensure that members of the Payroll Users OU can access resources in the Payroll
Servers OU and in the Finance Servers OU. What should you do?
A. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and assign the Secure Server (Require Security)
IPSec policy setting. Link the GPO to only the Payroll Servers OU. Create a second GPO
and assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy setting. Link the second GPO to the
Payroll Users OU.
B. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and assign the Secure Server (Require Security)IPSec policy setting. Link the GPO to the Payroll Servers OU and to the Finance Servers
OU. Create a second GPO and assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy setting.
Link the second GPO to the Payroll Users OU.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and assign the Server (Request Security) IPSec
policy setting. Link the GPO to only the Payroll Servers OU. Create a second GPO and
assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy setting. Link the second GPO to the Payroll
Users OU.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and assign the Server (Request Security) IPSec
policy setting. Link the GPO to the Payroll Servers OU and to the Finance Servers OU.
Create a second GPO and assign the Client (Respond Only) IPSec policy setting. Link the
second GPO to the Payroll Users OU.
Answer: A
more Q&A:http://www.pass4side.com/70-293.htm

The more recent Oracle 1z0-052 Exam Objectives

2009-05-04T22:52:00.000-07:00

Testinside 1z0-052 Practice Testing Software provides you an easy online solution to your Oracle 1z0-052 Exam Preparation. With Testinside 1z0-052 Practice Testing Software is tested on all Windows Platforms and contains the more recent Oracle 1z0-052 Exam Objectives. You can use Testinside 1z0-052 Practice Testing Software on any PC with most Latest versions of Windows and take the tests in two modes. One is Practice Mode and the other is learning mode for Oracle 1z0-052 Certification Exam. You can check your answers and get detailed explanations in Testinside 1z0-052 Learning Mode. Testinside 1z0-052 Practice Testing Software Certification Mode helps you test yourself in a real time environment of Oracle 1z0-052 Certification Mode.

Industry experience to produce precise

2009-05-04T01:32:00.000-07:00

Exam e20-340 Preparation Material provides you everything you will need to take your e20-340 Exam. The e20-340 Exam details are researched and produced by Professional Certification Experts who are constantly using industry experience to produce precise, and logical. You may get questions from different web sites or books, but logic is the key. The product of Testinside will help you not only pass in the first try, but also save your valuable time.

Competition and strength

2009-04-29T19:12:00.000-07:00

The company recently software sales increased in the first quarter of this year, is expected to 21 May reach six billion dollars. But in the last fiscal year, Oracle's software sales for 178 million dollars. Visible, Oracle to purchase from Microsoft and IBM after all is a pressure, combining with the capital, Oracle will be more powerful.Market analysts are directly from the Oracle acquisitions, the competition is Microsoft to Microsoft is a pressure. Through acquisitions, Oracle can improve his database, ERP, middleware products array, also increased with Microsoft against chips.However, more analysts still this acquisition. Pass4side said, "because the acquisition gives a very powerful Oracle of operating system, so this acquisition for Oracle is a very favorable. Because Oracle not involving the manufacture of obtained from hardware Oracle is a very interesting." "If you put the Oracle as a collection of software, because Oracle and Sun microsystem more business, this will be far more favorable than IBM acquisition from." "This transaction will strengthen the competitive advantage of Oracle to IBM, because earlier had started operation in the acquisition of the Oracle, and so is very sensible thing." Pass4side for the analysis, most people still give high evaluation, everyone knows Pass4side, is a leading global provider of textual content test, IT provides services in the world, almost all of IT, of course also certification exam 70 - including the latest 70-294，640-802，70-293，70-291，70-290，70-228，70-270，642-812，642-825，642-845，70-450，1z0-042，1z0-043，1z0-047，70-298，70-620 in the IT industry, research status and honor of high, its product design to CISCO, Oracle and from all series of such research contents, IT products in the world has broad masses of users, the exam tastes IT respected and loved. But there are also analysts believe that the SUN microsystem if takeover by ORACLE, it would be if the ORACLE to assimilation, or Pass4side affect the daily business, and Pass4side high-level, said the ORACLE and signaled the SUN microsystem deal, will not affect the daily operation Pass4side, the company will make the corresponding adjustment, to cater to the deal with the development situation, the attitude of the examination for the worldwide customers to provide quality services.

Pass4side prove that you pass the 70-559CSharp exam.

2009-04-29T00:05:00.000-07:00

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Not far away from cisco

2009-04-28T22:27:00.000-07:00

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Smart and patient

2009-04-28T00:51:00.000-07:00

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Do you know the Checkpoint 156-315.65 practice exam is hot or cold?

2009-04-27T20:24:00.000-07:00

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Passed the CCNP 642-811 exam is not difficult.

2009-04-22T22:22:00.000-07:00

I finally passed the CCNP 642-811 exam and passed a one-time, and I share with you my experience of the examination.

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2009-04-20T01:12:00.000-07:00

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117-102 Practice Test 117-101 Practice Exam

2009-04-15T00:42:00.000-07:00

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My CCSP complex,Pass4side help me a lot!

2009-04-10T22:22:00.000-07:00

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2009-04-08T23:41:00.000-07:00

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ORACLE OCP证书的巨大影响力之我见

2009-04-07T18:29:00.000-07:00

oracle在国内渐渐火起来，但总的来说市场份额还被其它数据库厂家瓜分不少，在北美,才真正感觉到Oracle的巨大影响力，甚至一年一度的Oracle OpenWorld也敢于和在Las Vages举办的全球IT盛会Comdex叫板。从招聘职位的比例上也可见一斑，有经验的Oracle DBA比其它人员更加短缺，因为各个公司都感觉到客户资料才是公司真正的宝贵财富。
　　根据资料统计，有经验的DBA在美国的平均工资为7-8万美金。这也是为啥许多人都要拿OCP证书的原因。公司招Oracle DBA除了看经验外，通过Oracle 1Z0-042拿到OCP证书也是非常重要的，它就像通行证一样让你在北美通行无阻，在哪里都可以找到你满意的工作。
　　我的一个同事是四年前从印度移民来美国的，将近40岁的人了，在本国学的是医药保健，可是到这里做了几年以后发现这份工作没有前途，工资也一直上不去，就决定改行学oracle数据库管理，并且立志做一名优秀的ORACLE DBA。
　　在美国有许多职业培训学校为顺应市场的需求而开设各类证书班，如CISCO，MICROSOFT，ORACLE等证书班，其目的是在短期内帮助学员获得证书，一般拿到证书的人都可以找到一份entry level的工作，既然如此，何乐而不为呢。
　　OCP的证书班一般是全脱产学习6个月，学费是1.3万美元左右，相当于人民币大概9万元，我那位同事就是辞掉保健师的职位参加了这种班，自掏腰包，如果再加上6个月的工资损失的话，那至少也得2万美元。当然这是转行所付出的代价,但同时他改行后所拿的工资至少是做保健师的两倍，算来算去还是超值的。
　　像他这种老当益壮的在美国绝不在少数，我的另外一个同事都50岁了还在啃CISCO呢。啥叫活到老，学到老，这里才有了真正的体会到了。这里新移民撑起IT半边天一点儿也不夸张，本地出身或已拿到身份证并从事IT的基本都被吸引到了美国。因为这里是IT人士大展身手的沃土!
　　说了这么多，最重要的还是经验，通过1Z0-042考试拿到OCP证书并不能代表一切，你要知道“书山有路勤为径，学海无涯苦坐舟”！

How about the microsoft ES0-003 certificate for someone who only just steps into the society ?

2009-04-05T22:36:00.000-07:00

Why shall we consider Miccrosoft certificate firstly?Because Microsoft is most extensively
used,that means it will benefit you now or the future.Take CISCO for example,if you are a graduate
who pass the CCDP exam,will enterprises must employ you ? The manager shall ask you firstly if you
have work experience.Then how about your answer?Do you think you will in an awkward position?As a
student ,one has seldom opportunity to operate the SISCO equipment.While Microsoft is different
from CISCO,you can operate any Windows operating system in any computer.You will be more confident
when the employer refer to the MS experience.What's more,for a normal enterprise even though it
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